Wildman Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 What is 0/0? Well, let's take a gander at some other fractions. 1/1 = 1 2/2 = 1 3/3 = 1 4/4 = 1 5/5 = 1 ...and it goes on and on, until it reaches ∞/∞. But, let's look at some other fractions. 1/0 = UNDEFINED 2/0 = UNDEFINED 3/0 = UNDEFINED 4/0 = UNDEFINED 5/0 = UNDEFINED ...and it goes on and one, until it reaches ∞/0. My question guys is, does 0/0 equal 1, or UNDEFINED? This honestly has always bothered me... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
roxchick93 Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 it equals 0? right. haha. idk. math confuses the heck out of me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ross Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 With the following assumptions: 0 * 1 = 0 0 * 2 = 0 The following then must be true: 0 * 1 = 0 * 2 Dividing by zero gives: ((0/0) * 1) = ((0/0) * 2) Thus: 1 = 2. Semi-proof of the fallacy of the implicit assumption that dividing by 0 is a legitimate operation with 0 / 0 = 1. Dividing by zero is undefined in my eyes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
travel_hymn Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 *mathematical sorry had to do it. XD Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
illicit Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 mathematically undefined Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
{Alice Cullen} Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 whatever you would like it to equal. seriously though i have no clue so here is a smiley biting another smilies head: 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Wildman Posted December 8, 2008 Author Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 With the following assumptions: 0 * 1 = 0 0 * 2 = 0 The following then must be true: 0 * 1 = 0 * 2 Dividing by zero gives: ((0/0) * 1) = ((0/0) * 2) Thus: 1 = 2. Semi-proof of the fallacy of the implicit assumption that dividing by 0 is a legitimate operation with 0 / 0 = 1. Dividing by zero is undefined in my eyes. Another factor you should include: Is 0 prime or composite? With that, it could bring that factor of 1. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
elusive. Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 Hell, my head hurts by just looking at that. reminds me of my AP Calculus class. i have no clue how I'm going to pass that class. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Crush3x Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 Yeah, undefined. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
imnotsorryyet Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 it is undefined.. because every fraction that has a denominator w/ a value of 0 are undefined... btw.. i'm neophyte here.. mind if you look on the first 2 threads that i made.... if you dont mind... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kyute_shana Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 With the following assumptions: 0 * 1 = 0 0 * 2 = 0 The following then must be true: 0 * 1 = 0 * 2 Dividing by zero gives: ((0/0) * 1) = ((0/0) * 2) Thus: 1 = 2. Semi-proof of the fallacy of the implicit assumption that dividing by 0 is a legitimate operation with 0 / 0 = 1. Dividing by zero is undefined in my eyes. I remember my teacher in Math did this..way back my 2nd year of college..he proved to us that 1=2.. but I was never a Math enthusiast..I hate it.. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hubabalou Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 Its undefined. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
emily ! Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 whatever you would like it to equal.seriously though i have no clue so here is a smiley biting another smilies head: LMAO. *repped* Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
{Alice Cullen} Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 LMAO. *repped* haha thanks <3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stephy Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 I typed it in my calculator and it told me it was undefined. I'm not going to argue with the equipment ! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Andrew Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 Am I the only one who doesn't care? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jorgi Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 ^yes ! can't you see this is of utmost importance ?! ...anyway, 0 is essentially nothing. there is no quantity of 0. 0 does not exist. so dividing nothing by nothing cannot make something. ...OR CAN IT ?!?!?!?!?111 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Andrew Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 ^yes ! can't you see this is of utmost importance ?! As a matter of fact.... I ... I don't think I can. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Komomaan Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 Who divides by zero is a zero. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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